I am studying diazepam and midazolam [among other drugs]. I noticed a couple of differences between the two drugs’ classifications and mechanism of actions. I figured that since they are both benzodiazepines, they would have the same exact action on the brain, and thus, produce the same exact effects on the body. My question is, shouldnâ€™t the classes and mechanism of actions be identical for both drugs? I did a little research and I could not get a straight answer..